So I will ask you again, since you didn't answer last time: why do we need government involved to establish a marriage contract when they aren't involved in other contracts between two private natural persons?
ETA: my wife and I do have a pre-nup, because we don't think the government (to the extent possible) should interpret how to enforce or dissolve our contract we call "marriage".
I'm sorry but I thought I addressed that when I gave examples of the Gov being involved from the begining of a contract being formed whether we consciously understand it or not.
My point is this. We don't involve the Gov in the establishment of contracts but when they fail we expect the Gov to decern what is meant by the contract.
Marriage is a contract. When there are children involved and a man/woman go through a divorce, unless the woman is an inept as a mother, 95% of the time the children will go with the woman.
Man/man have a child. Marriage ends. Who gets the kid? Why does the court have to decide what to do when they were never consulted in the begining??
I don't want the Gov involved in as little of our everyday lives as possible. I don't like the idea of having to get the Gov approval for me to love someone.
However, our country was founded on morals/principles that our fathers took from the Bible. Homosexual marriage and relationships are strictly forbidden in the Bible. Therefore, if we want to turn a blind eye to homosexual marriage, should be then turn a blind eye to the rest of the moral/principles we get from the Bible?
That was the point of my first post.
